1:3 - So he married Gomer daughter of Diblaim, and she conceived and bore him a son.
Strange that I never noticed this before, but why does the Bible so often precede a record of birth with some variant of the term “she conceived”? Why not just say, “he married Gomer and she bore him a son”? Does Hosea imagine his audience to be unfamiliar with the concept of pregnancy? The same progression is used in verses six and eight (“Gomer conceived again and gave birth to a daughter... she conceived and bore a son”). Read through Genesis and you find similar descriptions over and over, starting in Genesis 4:1 (“Now Adam knew Eve his wife, and she conceived and bore Cain”). While these are not explicit scriptural declarations that personhood begins at conception, it is still a significant pairing. There has and continues to be great debate over the question of ensoulment. At what point in human development does the soul enter the body? The Bible doesn’t answer that question directly, but isn’t it interesting that scripture gives such frequent and prominent mention to the term “she conceived”. I’m not saying the authors were necessarily using the word conceive in its technical, biological sense, but even if they only meant “she became pregnant”, when does a woman become pregnant? She becomes pregnant at conception. By giving pregnancy (and by implication conception) such a prominent place in so many narratives, it is reasonable to infer that those who authored such narratives viewed conception as a decisive moment in a person’s individual history.
4:9,10 - And it shall be like people, like priest; I will punish them for their ways and repay them for their deeds. They shall eat, but not be satisfied; they shall play the






